He means for large, genius level z, G1(X<=z) is so large (means


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送交者: mangolasi 于 2007-09-27, 16:12:08:

回答: No. P(max(x_i)>z)=1-P(max(x_i) 由 湘女 于 2007-09-27, 15:55:44:

G1(X>z) is so small) that even with a power of large n, (G1(X<=z))^n (remember G1(X<=z)<=1) is still larger than (G2(Y<=z))^m, i.e. we still have smaller probability to generate a genius. He takes the sentence "we still have smaller probability to generate a genius" as empirical fact, and IF n>m, then his conclusion is that G1(X<=z) is much much larger than G2(Y<=z)--i.e. for each individual chinese, the probability to be a genius is even smaller than we thought.

Of course, I am not sure whether "we still have smaller probability to generate a genius" is true, or whether the assumption of iid is true, or wether there is something else.

It's just an argument for fun. Not serious research. Personally I hate a to see such serious racist research--especially when it's so complicated and the truth is so hidden.




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