The logic of saying which country is richer is perfectly alright.



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送交者: mangolasi 于 2006-3-03, 12:13:46:

回答: I don't even know what it means by "china is poor" or 由 skipper3 于 2006-3-03, 11:55:59:

We can use GDP per capita, a decent enough measure. Still better, if we can have other measure like life expectency etc...This logic is alright because it's not absurd when it takes extreme: Is Switzerland richer than Somalia as a country? People with common sense knows the answer.

Your logic is problemetic. When arguing Malaysia is not richer than China, your approach is to divide China into 2 groups: the more advanced one outperforms Malaysia, and the 2nd one is not destroying wealth--hence YOU CLAIM THAT CHINA AS A WHOLE WOULD STILL OUTPERFORM MAYLAYSIA. Indeed, destroying wealth is absurd, and to falisfy your claim on the total number (Total GDP and total # of superrich, provided that it is defined) indeed needs this condition. But to falsify your claim on per capita, you don't need this absurd condition. The condition to make "China as a whole outperform malaysia in terms of PER CAPITA measure" false is that the 2nd part is far lagged behind Malaysia (though still far above 0), the DIFFERENCE beyond one particular number (can be calculated once you have #s on population distribution and wealth distribtuion).

What I pointed out is that your 1st and 3rd measure is indeed can not be falsify without absurd condition. But these 2 are irrelevant measures. For the only relevant measure (GDP per capita), we don't need absurd evidence to falsify it.

And after examing many other indicators of "rich", it is a very reasonable conclusion to say "Malaysia as a country is richer than China".



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